question 3 was a huge pain to get the answer, but here is how i approached all 3 questions.
remember when using finance solver, having a (-) sign means that the money is not in the possession of the person (for example, in an annuity investment the person doesn’t have the money on them therefore is a negative, or if someone is making a payment then it’s negative because the money is going away from the person).
anything italicised in my workings out is the value we are finding in finance solver.
question 1
- first, you need to find the value of the annuity after two years before the interest rate drops
- to do this, find the FV
N: 2x12
I: 3.24
PV: -265298.48
Pmt: -1000
FV: 307794.50
P/CpY: 12
- next, we have to find the new payment as the interest rate has dropped
- we have to consider the annuity needs to reach $600,000 in 8 more years, as 2 years have already passed (2+8=10)
- the PV is now the FV from the first half of the question, but needs to be negative because the person does not yet have the money
- to do this, find the Pmt
N: 8x12
I: 3.20 (remember to change this)
PV: -307794.50
Pmt: -1854.05
FV: 600000
P/CpY: 12
therefore, your answer should be E
question 2
- first, you need to find how much of the loan is left after 59 payments.
- to do this, find the FV
N: 59
I: 3.72
PV: 175260.56
Pmt: -3200
FV: -3557.09
P/CpY: 12
- next, you change the N value to 1, as this is the final payment
- FV will be zero as the loan will be paid out
- PV becomes the FV value from the first half, but remove the (-) as the person still has that amount from the loan
- to find the final payment, find for Pmt
N: 1
I: 3.72
PV: 3557.09
Pmt: -3568.12
FV: 0
P/CpY: 12
therefore, your answer should be E
question 3
- this question requires you to work backwards which can be super annoying
- you should start by finding the value of the investment 10 years before the one-off payment (so 10 years after the investment began)
- to do this, you need to use the value of the investment after 20 years ($686904.09) as the FV, and solve for the PV
- you will use the 2.8% interest rate as this is the SECOND half of the investment
N: 120
I: 2.8
PV: -519320.30
Pmt: 0
FV: 686904.09
P/CpY: 12
- next, you need to do the one off $10000 payment, where you use the PV from the working out above and subtract $10000
519320.30 - 10000
= 509320.30
- finally, that value becomes the new FV and should be without the (-), as the person will have that money if they took out the investment after 10 years
- change the interest rate to 3.2% as this is the first 10 years we are solving for
- to find the initial value of the investment, solve for PV
N: 120
I: 3.2
PV: 369999.99
Pmt: 0
FV: 509320.20
P/CpY: 12
$369999.99 is closest to $370000, therefore your answer should be D
reems i hope this helps, let me know if you have more questions!!